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factorial_function [2015/11/14 03:08]
nikolaj
factorial_function [2015/11/14 03:26]
nikolaj
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 The binomial coefficients use the factorial of course, so there'​s not real computational benefit. The binomial coefficients use the factorial of course, so there'​s not real computational benefit.
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 +The theorem underlying here is that, for all $n$
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 +$\sum_{k=0}^n\dfrac{(-1)^k (-k)^n}{k!\,​(n - k)!}=1$ ​
  
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